Let B be the set of all beatmaps.
Let A be the set of all authentic beatmaps.
Let X be the set of everything bad that can be done in a map.
Let G be the set of all good (perfect) maps, ie. G = B ∖ X
Let Y be some subset of X such that A = B ∖ Y
Since X ∪ Y = X,
we have A ∩ G = (B ∖ Y) ∩ (B ∖ X) = B ∖ X = G.
Let A' be the set of all non-authentic beatmaps, ie. A' = B ∖ A
Then A' ∩ A = (B ∖ A) ∩ A = ∅.
→ A' ∩ (A ∩ G) = ∅
→ A' ∩ G = ∅
Therefore no non-authentic map exists in the set of good (perfect) maps.
PROVE ME WRONG
Arguments that no such set Y exists must be justified with concrete examples.
First person to refute me gets a 1 month subscription.
Let A be the set of all authentic beatmaps.
Let X be the set of everything bad that can be done in a map.
Let G be the set of all good (perfect) maps, ie. G = B ∖ X
Let Y be some subset of X such that A = B ∖ Y
Since X ∪ Y = X,
we have A ∩ G = (B ∖ Y) ∩ (B ∖ X) = B ∖ X = G.
Let A' be the set of all non-authentic beatmaps, ie. A' = B ∖ A
Then A' ∩ A = (B ∖ A) ∩ A = ∅.
→ A' ∩ (A ∩ G) = ∅
→ A' ∩ G = ∅
Therefore no non-authentic map exists in the set of good (perfect) maps.
PROVE ME WRONG
Arguments that no such set Y exists must be justified with concrete examples.
First person to refute me gets a 1 month subscription.